Re: A Gambling Math Question


The variance of the sum of independent random variables is the sum of
their individual variances. So, let r be a random variable that can
take the value 0 with probability q, or the value 1 with probability p.
The variance of r is easily seen to be p*q, so from the additive
property the sum of N such random variables has variance N*p*q. But the
sum of N such random variables has a binomial(N, p) distribution, so
the variance of that distribution is also N*p*q.


What random variables are you referring to? And if r takes the value
of 0 with probability q, or the value 1 with probability p, then p*q
would be 0. Anything times zero equals zero. What are you talking
about? I don't understand.

.

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