hi...Order Notation Problem...


Hey all,

Can yu help me out with a homework problem?

f , g are mapping from N(+ve) to R(+ve)

If f=O(g) then log(f)= O(log(g)) (log to the base 2)
this i was able to prove easily.....

but does the implication hold true in the other direction?

that is if
log(f)= O(log(g)) then f=O(g) ?

if not can yu find a counter example?

.

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