Re: Interesting (IMO) question about the reals...
- From: David C. Ullrich <ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 08 Feb 2007 06:10:51 -0600
On 7 Feb 2007 12:46:22 -0800, "MoeBlee" <jazzmobe@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
(Technicality: This assumes that we're talking about the
theory of complete ordered fields as a first-order
theory using set theory, so the Completeness Theorem
from logic applies...)
Well first, I should say that I have a little uneasiness
about this myself. But:
This is something I dont' understand. What is the theory of complete
ordered fields? All I know of, as you mentioned, is set theory. If we
take some proper subtheory of set theory to be the theory of complete
ordered fields, then it's not a recursively axiomatizable theory,
right?
So what? We can still talk about the class of theorems of set
theory of the form "if F is a complete ordered field then...".
Meanwhile, just putting it as a first order theory onto itself
(without a primitive and axioms for the membership relation) by using
an axiom schema for the least upper bound principle doesn't, as I've
been told, result in a theory whose models are all and only complete
ordered fields.
Anything you might say to shed some light here is appreciated.
I was actually hoping someone else would shed some light...
MoeBlee
************************
David C. Ullrich
.
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