Re: continuum hypothesis and 0=1
- From: Denis Feldmann <denis.feldmann.asupprimer@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 01 Mar 2007 07:27:56 +0100
Rupert a écrit :
On Mar 1, 1:20 am, Denis Feldmann <denis.feldmann.asuppri...@club-I read your other answers, and I see now you are right. In fact, I am quite familiar with Cohen's work (having translated it in French in 1969)... but I had forgotten this part of the analysis :-(
internet.fr> wrote:
Rupert a écrit :> On Feb 28, 1:02 am, Pierre-Yves Gaillard <gaill...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>wrote:Are you sure (see my own answer). I believe this is not so clear, as weA proof of the equality of the integers 0 and 1 would create aI can write you a computer program, and, given a proof in ZFC of the
contradiction in mathematics.
Would a proof of the continuum hypothesis create an equivalent
contradiction?
http://www.iecn.u-nancy.fr/~gaillard/
continuum hypothesis, it will give you a proof in ZFC that 0=1.
only know that if ZFC is supposed w-consistent. Or I am making some
confusion?
Yes, I'm pretty sure. The details are a bit tricky. Which version of
Cohen's proof are you familiar with?
.
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