Re: Definition of finite.
- From: G. Frege <nomail@invalid>
- Date: Thu, 03 May 2007 23:38:35 +0200
On 3 May 2007 14:00:23 -0700, MoeBlee <jazzmobe@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
[the] definition is
x is finite <-> Ey(y is a natural number & x equinumerous to y).
More formally:
finite x :<-> En(n e w & x ~ n)
Right.
Now, as to the particular definition you just mentioned [...],
it's not circular as long as 'is a natural number' and 'equi-
numerous' have been previously defined without use of 'finite'.
I guess, he wanted to stress the word "show" in this question.
Now Let y be a natural number, How do I use [this] definition
to show that y is finite, without being involved in some circu-
larity?
That's indeed an interesting "problem", imho. Of course, you should
not interpret "show" here as "prove" (as one might be tempted to
do), but rather with: "show that this is _really_ the case".
I guess, his point is the following: Just assume _for the sake of
the argument_ that there were infinite sets in w (here I'll use an
intuitive notion of infinite!) - since we don't have a definition
of finite/infinite so far, this might very well be the case, at the
present stage of the development of our formal theory (i.e. we
don't have a proof that this is not the case). If we _define_ now
/finite/ (in our theory) the way we did, we could _prove_ (i.e. we
would get), that all sets in w are _finite_ (which _actually_ would
not be the case).
So proving that all n in w are finite by "assuming" that they are
finite is "circular" (from this point of view).
Actually, *I* personally would consider this as asome sort of
argument for NOT using the mentioned definition as our "basic"
definition for "finite" in set theory (say ZFC) - despite its
simplicity (and hence its attractiveness).
So one might claim (if you are to follow the argumentation from
above) that our "basic" definition of /finite sets/ should be via
_Dedekind's_ definition of /infinite sets/.
Of course, then we can show (at least in ZF_C_) that these two
definitions of "finite" are equivalent. So we might claim that the
natural numbers are _really_ finite. (And this might be considered
as a justification for using of the definition mentioned above.)
F.
--
E-mail: info<at>simple-line<dot>de
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