Re: even/odd functions
- From: Proginoskes <CCHeckman@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 11 Jun 2007 05:18:41 -0000
On Jun 10, 2:26 am, Gary Wessle <phd...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
José Carlos Santos <jcsan...@xxxxxxxx> writes:
On 09-06-2007 19:43, Gary Wessle wrote:
testing with odd functions y=x and even functions y=x^2
is it always the case that
odd-function / even-function = even-function
even-function / odd-function = even-function
odd-function / odd-function = even-function
even-function / even-function = even-function
thanksSay f is a function of a single argument.
1) f(-x) = f(x) for all x means f is even
2) f(-x) = -f(x) for all x means f is odd
Nobody can, since the third and the fourth one are false.Use these definitions to prove the results (as Arturo Magadininteresting results I arrived to, can some one second this!
suggested).
odd-function / even-function = odd-function
even-function / odd-function = odd-function
odd-function / odd-function = neither
even-function / even-function = neither
could some one give me examples of non-trig odd-function andSure. f(x) = x is odd and f(x) = x^2 is even.
even-function so that I can apply the (1) and (2) test on them?
well, if I divide the odd function f(x) = x by itself I get f(x) = 1I have a feeling that the results depend on the function and is notYour feeling is wrong.
generalized, we'll see.
and the same goes for the even function f(x) = x^2.
so y=1 is an even-function. does that settles it.
odd-function / odd-function = even-function
even-function / even-function = even-function
No. General statements such as these ones will be settled only when you
*prove* that they are true in general (which is extraordinarily easy to
do in these cases).
well
when using f(x) = x for an odd-function and f(x) = x^2 for an
even-function, testing the hypothesis gives:
odd-function / odd-function = 1
even-function / even-function = 1
which is f(x)=1.
now lets test this.
f(-x) = 1 = f(x) even-function
does this settles it, otherwise I am not able to look outside the
box. and thus I will need help because I give up.
(Groan) Here's a proof of your first observation:
odd-function / even-function = odd-function
Proof. Let f be an odd function and g be an even function. f being odd
means
f(-x) = -f(x), for all x (in the domain of f), and g being even means
g(-x) = g(x)
for all x (in the domain of g).
To show that f/g is odd, we need to show that (f/g)(-x) = (f/g)(x),
for any x
(in the domain of f/g), where
(f/g)(y) = f(y)/g(y).
Choose a x (in the domain of f/g). Then we calculate:
(f/g)(-x) = f(-x) / g(-x) = -f(x) / g(x),
since f is even and g is odd,
[equation continued] = - [f(x) / g(x)] = - (f/g)(x).
Since x was arbitrary, f/g is odd. QED.
Now you do it.
--- Christopher Heckman
.
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