Re: Ultimate debunking of Cantor's Theory

In article <1184905693.667647.100360@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
WM <mueckenh@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On 20 Jul., 05:43, MoeBlee <jazzm...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

So I'm asking again: Why do you give a definition of 'potentially
infinite' that is just equivalent to an ordinary set theoretic
definition of 'is infinite'?

There is a big difference.

Not to any mathematician. A set which is "potentially infinite" by your
definition is Dedekind infinite by Dedekind's.


Set theory claims that I cannot only take a
subset of S but that I can take also the whole set S.

Set theories say that sets are completely determined by their
membership, so that one cannot have sets whose membership not completely
determined. So whatever it is that WM is talking about as being
'potentially infinite', it cannot be a set.

Perhaps WM should use the term "bunch" for his nonsets, as he has done
elsewhere.





Contrary I can
take only a finite subset of S because it is impossible to take the
whole set (because S does not exist).

If, as WM claims, some S does not exist, how can one take any of it?

In any set theory, a set either exists or does not exist, and if it
doesn't exist, there isn't any /it/ to have subsets of.

The illogic of WM's MAthUnRealism strikes again.
.

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