Re: inequality
- From: The World Wide Wade <aderamey.addw@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 31 Jul 2007 13:43:38 -0700
In article <1185897882.471505.191030@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
novis <standshik@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
hello all,
for any real x,y with x>y>1 is it true that y/(y-1) >x/(x-1)? I dont
know if it is true, but if it is, does it hold always?
thanks
y/(y-1) = 1 + 1/(y-1), similarly for the x term. You're left with
1/(y-1) > 1/(x-1); compare denominators.
.
- References:
- inequality
- From: novis
- inequality
- Prev by Date: Re: Group Homology very basic question on definitions
- Next by Date: Re: Is it permitted in math to go beyond?
- Previous by thread: Re: inequality
- Next by thread: Question regarding natural logs
- Index(es):