Convergence of sequences of RVs
- From: VijaKhara <VijaKhara@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 05 Aug 2007 11:15:04 -0700
Hi all,
I have a problem which is very confusing to me. Can you please give me
any hints?
---------------------
Xn is the number of customers an ATM served up to discrete instant of
time n. Xn is a Binomial distribution:
P(Xn=k)= n_C_k * p^k *(1-p)^(n-k).
Asume that at time instance N, the ATM breaks down and therefore the
customer number the ATM served will remain XN thereafter.
N is a random variable with geometric distribution with mean 100.
Does the sequence converge almost surely and if so to what?
-----------------------------------------------
This problem is really confused to me since Ias I understand it, Xn
obviously converges to XN and the probability of this event is equal
to the probability of breaking down of the ATM which is 1.
Thus Xn --> XN with prob = 1 and Xn converges almost surely.
If my thought is reasonable, why do they give some other information
such as Xn is Binomial and N is Geometric. ...??? I am very confused.
Can you please confirm if my solution is correct?
Thanks
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: Convergence of sequences of RVs
- From: Robert Israel
- Re: Convergence of sequences of RVs
- Prev by Date: Re: Truth Among Mathematikers and Empirics
- Next by Date: Kakutani skyscraper & ergodic
- Previous by thread: upper semidifferentiable functions?
- Next by thread: Re: Convergence of sequences of RVs
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|