Definite integration question
- From: Theo Markettos <theom+news@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 09 Aug 2007 21:01:50 +0100 (BST)
This isn't a homework problem, but something I've been puzzled by for a
while.
I'm trying to find an analytic form of the surface integral:
\int_S{ (l + h cos (phi))^-1 dh dphi }
over the circle h=0 to h0, phi=0 to 2*pi. The one bit of information I
don't know how to represent is that l>h. There's a pole in the system at
l=+/-h, so perhaps I need to include this somehow.
Doing this numerically works, and it converges.
My textbook suggests the substitution g=tan(0.5*x), but evaluating this
returns the answer:
[insert subs result]
which evaluates to zero. It's not as if we're introducing a pole at
g=tan(pi) since the integral will still evaluate.
[look at wikipedia closed form]
.
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