Re: Probability - Cryptography



On Sat, 01 Sep 2007 10:23:40 -0000, Vivek B <vivekb1985@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

The problem is...

I have a 3 bit number- say x

This is mapped to a 8 bit number using a function K().
We can assume that the function K() randomly maps the 3 bit number to
8 bit number and no two 3 bit number gets mapped to the same 8 bit
number.
Does K() always give the same output for the same input, or does the
random mapping change?



Now lets name y as the first four bits of the 8 bit number.

What is the probability that two 3 bit numbers (x1 and x2), generates
the same 4 bit key (y) ??
Anything from zero to 1.0 depending on the details of K().

If the bits of the 3-bit number are ttt then:

K(ttt) -> 0ttt1ttt -> y = 0ttt

(here K(T) = 17 * T + 8)

will always give different y's for different inputs.

However if we have:

K(ttt) -> 0101ttt0 -> y = 0101

(here K(T) = 2 * T + 80)

then all ttt are mapped to the 0101 four bit key y.


rossum




--------------

A solution:

z = K(x); z is 8 bit in size.

We can divide 16 bit numbers into 16 bins of 4 bit numbers.
bin of 0000
bin of 0001
.
.
.

bin of 1111

P(no 2 keys are same) = P( 8 keys generated by the function K() falls
in 8 different bins ).

= C(16,8)/16 power 8.

But i still doubt the solution is wrong!!!

HELP HELP :) ...

.



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