Re: Paul R Halmos, Measure Theory, Sec 36, Question (2)
- From: smart <smartnose@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 01 Sep 2007 16:00:39 -0000
Thanks. But, when I apply fubini's law, there's no contradiction?
Each iterated integral is 0.
BTW: is there any way to prove the conclusion without fubini's law?
Say, through the definition of Lebesque measure?
Thanks.
Wei
Allan Adler <a...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Fubinate
--
Ignorantly,
Allan Adler <a...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
* Disclaimer: I am a guest and *not* a member of the MIT CSAIL. My actions and
* comments do not reflect in any way on MIT. Also, I am nowhere near Boston.
.
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