Re: Implementable Set Theory and Consistency of ZFC
- From: Han de Bruijn <Han.deBruijn@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 15 Oct 2007 16:18:34 +0200
Brian Chandler wrote:
Indeed. Let's prove that Han's latest Toy Set Theory is inconsistent.
It must include at least some finite sets, and algebra based on it
will include at least some finite fields. So construct a bijection
between the set {0, 1, 2, ..., n-1 } for n some conveniently small
number, and the elements of the finite field of order n. Also consider
the obvious bijection (within Toy Set Theory) between the number n and
{0, 1, 2, ... n-1}. Then there is a bijection from the number 6 to the
finite field of order 6, which does not exist (by a fairly elementary
proof I won't bore you with). Collapse of Toy Set Theory.
This counter argument relies on a precise definition of "bijection". OK?
While it is true that there is a bijection between the number n and the
finite field of order n, the situation with hereditarily finite sets and
natural numbers is not quite like this. In fact, sets in _implementable_
set theory are _identical_ with natural numbers (: N_0). Can we likewise
say now that finite ordinals are _identical_ with naturals, in classical
mathematics? I think so, because they are "defined" like that. In short:
Hereditarily finite sets = naturals : implementable set theory
_ Mainstream mathematics : naturals = finite ordinals
So the naturals are a common factor in two theories. And they join the
finite ordinals (that is: axiom of Infinity) with the "set of all sets"
in implementable set theory. The latter does not exist, though.
Doesn't that say something? Isn't there an analogous pattern, somewhere
in common model theory?
Han de Bruijn
.
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