Question about set definition
- From: agapito6314@xxxxxxx
- Date: Wed, 24 Oct 2007 12:44:59 -0700
In Suppes' book on axiomatic set theory he defines the expression:
B= {x : S(x)}
as meaning either:
a) Set B exists containing precisely those elements that satisfy S(x).
or
b) No set exists which contains precisely those elements that satisfy
S(x) and B is the empty set 0.
I'm not clear on b). It would appear that in that case the entity "B"
is simply not a set, which 0 of course is, by definition.
What am I missing here? Thanks.
.
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