Re: Implementable Set Theory and Consistency of ZFC
- From: Han de Bruijn <Han.deBruijn@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 31 Oct 2007 12:18:07 +0100
Jesse F. Hughes wrote:
Han de Bruijn <Han.deBruijn@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
Jesse F. Hughes wrote:
I did not ask about your needs. I asked whether the formula ~Infinity
is also a theorem of (1)-(4), where ~Infinity is the negation of the
axiom of Infinity.
(~Infinity) is _not_ a theorem of (1)-(4), in this article:
http://hdebruijn.soo.dto.tudelft.nl/jaar2007/set_theory.pdf
Why not?
You show that foundation is true in your model. You conclude (1)-(4)
entail foundation.
~Infinity is also true in your model. Why do you not conclude that
(1)-(4) entail ~Infinity?
It is remarkably difficult to get an answer from you sometimes.
Really?
Really.
I simply cannot "prove" anything (constructively) about something I can
not understand (constructively).
Han de Bruijn
.
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