Re: Fermat's Last Theorem simple proof impossible?
- From: Proginoskes <CCHeckman@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 01 Nov 2007 22:26:26 -0000
On Nov 1, 3:12 pm, mike3 <mike4...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Oct 31, 6:56 pm, "*** T. Winter" <***.Win...@xxxxxx> wrote:
Apart from the other responses...
In article <1193860859.090052.313...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> mike3 <mike4...@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
> Did Fermat himself have a real proof like he
> claimed?
He did not claim such a thing. When he claimed something he wrote letters
to others that they did show something for which he claimed to have a
proof (this clearly shows his background, i.e. not mathematics, he was
just an amateur).
Why does one need to be something other than an "amateur" to have
a "background" (ie. knowledge, experience) in mathematics?
Knowing what other people have tried is important, so you don't end up
"reinventing the wheel".
--- Christopher Heckman
.
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