Re: Fermat's Last Theorem simple proof impossible?

In article <1193955986.702563.187910@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> Proginoskes <CCHeckman@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
On Nov 1, 3:12 pm, mike3 <mike4...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Oct 31, 6:56 pm, "*** T. Winter" <***.Win...@xxxxxx> wrote:
....
He did not claim such a thing. When he claimed something he wrote
letters to others that they did show something for which he claimed
to have a proof (this clearly shows his background, i.e. not
mathematics, he was just an amateur).

Why does one need to be something other than an "amateur" to have
a "background" (ie. knowledge, experience) in mathematics?

Well, he was an amateur (just like me BTW). And you do not need to be
something else, but he just was something else.

Knowing what other people have tried is important, so you don't end up
"reinventing the wheel".

Not publicising what you have found before you can safely tell what you
have found (so that recognition comes to the proper place) seems to be
quite common in law circles. He has always been very secretive about his
proofs (although he did reveal the methods he did use, like infinite
descent).
--
*** t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~***/
.