Re: Implementable Set Theory and Consistency of ZFC
- From: David C. Ullrich <ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 02 Nov 2007 08:14:31 -0600
On Thu, 01 Nov 2007 13:27:16 +0100, Han de Bruijn
<Han.deBruijn@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
David C. Ullrich wrote:
On Wed, 31 Oct 2007 12:13:48 +0100, Han de Bruijn
<Han.deBruijn@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
So, even if I don't make use of (5-8), a proof of A from (1-4) is a
proof from (1-8) ?
Yes. Evidently this is news to you - that's just proof
that you have no idea what "this follows from that"
means, exactly as people have said.
Sure. How could I forget: "if 2.2 = 4, then New York is a large city"
(from 'On the Sentential Calculus' by Alfred Tarski). What nonsense!
No, it would be nonsense if it worked the way you think it should.
For a second try to forget that you're right and everyone else
on the planet is wrong, and think about the following:
Suppose we know the following:
"If we assume blah-blah-blah then it follows that the
integral of 1/t is log(t)."
Now suppose that we assume blah-blah-blah, and we
_also_ assume that unicorns exist. It really makes
sense to you that just because we're assuming unicorns
exist, the fact that the integral of 1/t is log(t)
should somehow no longer follow from blah-blah-blah?
So, even if I say "there exists a Foo", then such
a statement is a valid premise for proving that the integral of 1/t
from 1 to x is ln(x) ?
If we have a set of axioms S that implies that the integral
of 1/t from 1 to x is log(x) then yes, that statement also
follows from S together with "there exists a Foo".
Weird ..
So? First, it's how things are, whether you think it's
weird or not. Second, it shows that the things you've
been saying about how whatever follows from 1-4 but
does not follow from 1-8 are simply false.
Mathematical logic is a perversion of common speech logic, that's why.
Han de Bruijn
************************
David C. Ullrich
.
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