Re: Derivative <= 1
- From: Daniel Kraft <d@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 26 Nov 2007 08:33:23 +0000
Are you saying that the mean value theorem is not a part of your studies up until now?Thanks to you, this theorem is exactly what I was looking for! Knowing this of course the problem becomes quite solvable ;)But possibly both the existence itself and the (*) thing are of course a bit vague...Yes. I would like to see you use <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem>.
Not only is it surely part of his studies, but I suspect that exercise
follows a section in his text devoted to the "Mean Value Theorem".
to Daniel Kraft: Given a HW exercise, actually _read_ the section in
your textbook leading up to it, with particular focus on where the
author shows worked examples.
BTW, this exercise was not from a textbook but a weekly exercise sheet, so no theory there. The only theory comes from the lectures hold by another person, and this would have been not the first time they did not really match their work together... But I expect we will hear about MVT soon.
Daniel
--
Got two Dear-Daniel-Instant Messages
by MSN, associate ICQ with stress--so
please use good, old E-MAIL!
.
- References:
- Derivative <= 1
- From: Daniel Kraft
- Re: Derivative <= 1
- From: Klueless
- Re: Derivative <= 1
- From: Daniel Kraft
- Re: Derivative <= 1
- From: Michael Press
- Re: Derivative <= 1
- From: quasi
- Derivative <= 1
- Prev by Date: Re: JSH: extreme mathematics blog gone
- Next by Date: Re: JSH: extreme mathematics blog gone
- Previous by thread: Re: Derivative <= 1
- Next by thread: Re: Derivative <= 1
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|