Re: R^R = R^2 = R
- From: Dave Seaman <dseaman@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 28 Nov 2007 23:47:14 +0000 (UTC)
On Thu, 29 Nov 2007 00:44:24 +0100, Michal Przybylek wrote:
"Dave Seaman" <dseaman@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
thus if R = aleph_1 then R ^ R > = aleph_2
The "if" clause is not satisfied in ZF, which is the set theory that I
and most others are using.
Huh?
Clearly, the implication is false. Your response too.
The "if" clause is false; it is not the case that R = aleph_1, at least in
ZFC without CH.
Since the "if" clause is false, it follows that the implication is
vacuously true. There was nothing wrong with my response.
--
Dave Seaman
Oral Arguments in Mumia Abu-Jamal Case heard May 17
U.S. Court of Appeals, Third Circuit
<http://www.abu-jamal-news.com/>
.
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