Re: Number theory
- From: William Elliot <marsh@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 28 Dec 2007 20:04:17 -0800
On Fri, 28 Dec 2007, Helmut Richter wrote:
On Fri, 28 Dec 2007, Eric Schmidt wrote:
Suppose there were. Then, let p be the largest prime dividing n!. By
hypothesis, n! is a perfect square, so p^2 divides n!. Therefore, we must have
2p <= n. But, by Bertrand's postulate, there is a prime q with p < q < 2p.
Then q < n, so q divides n!, contradicting p being the largest prime dividing
n!.
For this problem a much weaker form of Bertrand's postulate, to wit
n <= p <= n&
Your post did not come through clearly.
What does & represent?
instead of.
n <= p <= 2n
would suffice. Would that be easier to prove?
--
Helmut Richter
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