Re: Compact open topology
- From: sanchopancho80@xxxxxx
- Date: Sun, 27 Jan 2008 11:28:50 -0800 (PST)
On 27 Jan., 19:05, sanchopanch...@xxxxxx wrote:
Ok, but if one consider the map
hom(X x Y, Z) ---> hom(Y, hom(X,Z))
of sets, one gets a bijective map, right? But the underlying set of
the product and the topological homs are just the product SET and the
hom SET! How can this be?
The only chance I see is that the map does not exist in TOP, i.e. the
map is not continuous. I don't understand why the above topological
map isn't bijective but the SET one is bijective, because they have to
be the same, if one forgets the structure, right?
Sancho
.
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