Re: about Lebesgue measuable set



On 1月31日, 下午4时27分, water <waterloo2...@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
E is Lebesgue measuable set.
Then E can be expressed as E = (\/_{k=1 to oo} F_k)
\/ Z.
F_k is bounded closed set. F_j /\ F_k = emptyset ,
j \= k.
Z is Lebesgue 0 measure set.

This is found in a proof of book.
Why?
Is that right?

If or not a borel set can be expressed as the union
of countable
disjoint bounded closed set

if the question is : can a Borel set be expressed as a countable union of closed sets?

then the answer is NO. If it can then its called a F-sigma set.

look for a recent post (last few weeks) from Brian Thomson, he posted a free version of his book which has a fairly good section on this stuff.
.



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