Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- From: craig <ctcowan@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 31 Jan 2008 03:55:53 EST
On 1月31日, 下午4时27分, water <waterloo2...@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
E is Lebesgue measuable set.\/ Z.
Then E can be expressed as E = (\/_{k=1 to oo} F_k)
F_k is bounded closed set. F_j /\ F_k = emptyset ,j \= k.
Z is Lebesgue 0 measure set.
This is found in a proof of book.
Why?
Is that right?
If or not a borel set can be expressed as the union
of countable
disjoint bounded closed set
if the question is : can a Borel set be expressed as a countable union of closed sets?
then the answer is NO. If it can then its called a F-sigma set.
look for a recent post (last few weeks) from Brian Thomson, he posted a free version of his book which has a fairly good section on this stuff.
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- From: water
- Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- References:
- Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- From: water
- Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- Prev by Date: Re: Abolish Fractions?
- Next by Date: Re: JSH: Why don't you quit?
- Previous by thread: Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- Next by thread: Re: about Lebesgue measuable set
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|