Re: Affine maps

On 06-02-2008 12:57, Rupert wrote:

Question: A map from R^n into R^m which maps line segments into line
segments must be an affine map?

Answer: No.

A map from R^n to R^n whose range has n+1 points in general position
which maps lines into lines is affine. This was known to Darboux. My
thesis deals with generalizations of this theorem.

Can you tell me where to find a proof of this theorem?

Best regards,

Jose Carlos Santos
.

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