Re: i apologize : of course f '' (x) = / = 0.
- From: se16@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Wed, 27 Feb 2008 08:55:28 -0800 (PST)
On 27 Feb, 16:13, tommy1729 <tommy1...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
tommy1729 <tommy1...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
hi all
let f(x) be an analytic function mapping allrationals to rationals (
and all reals to reals ).
i apologize : of course f '' (x) = / = 0.
is what i meant.
So try f(x) = x^2
and f''(x) = 2
.
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