Re: Probability of picking a positive rational number at random

On 2008-03-14, Ross A. Finlayson <raf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
A uniform probability distribution over the naturals would have that
the sum of a constant infinitely many times would equal one. Now,
that kind of notion is well reflected in that of arguments about the
differential, that the sum of infinitely many (constant) infinitesimal
width differential areas is a finite sum and exactly one.

Standard mathematics does not define integrals as sums of infinitely
many infinitesimal areas. It simply defines them as limits of finite
sums of finite areas, in cases where those limits exists.


Arguments have been presented here as to why the existence of a
uniform distribution over R_[0,1] implies a uniform distribution
over N_[0, oo).

You mean your own previous illogical arguments on the subject, I
assume.

http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/2e346cb26bc92f7d

Assumption verified.


then selecting a rational, similarly uniformly, for example a
censored uniformly random real from [0,1]

Whatever that is supposed to mean.


- Tim
.

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