Re: math : inaccessible cardinal
- From: Denis Feldmann <feldmann.denis.asupprimer@xxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 31 Mar 2008 06:57:55 +0200
amy666 a écrit :
to go from aleph_x to aleph_(x+1) we do the operation
"2^".
You always say that, people always point to you it is not true, you always ignore it and keep asking the same quastions, hopelessly muddled then by this misunderstanding.
what do we need to do to get from aleph_aleph_0 to
aleph_aleph_1. ???
amy
well ?
Well what ? Look at the definition
a tetration 2^2^... performed aleph_1 times on aleph_0 ?
Not so absurd, but still no real meaning (even with GCH admitted, of course)
does that make sence ?
do you believe that is the answer ?
No, we dont believe, in math, we look at definitions and theorem, and try to make sense...
do you have a better answer ?
Yes (and it is in any good book too) Just slightly difficult to give in a few words, but not so hard in a few paragraphs
or will you admit there is no answer ?
Never
.
amy
- References:
- Re: math : inaccessible cardinal
- From: amy666
- Re: math : inaccessible cardinal
- Prev by Date: Re: Arctan rational
- Next by Date: Re: Euclidean Algorithm - a simple question
- Previous by thread: Re: math : inaccessible cardinal
- Next by thread: Total Variation
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|