Re: Distributive property of functions

On Mar 31, 10:19 am, Olumide <50...@xxxxxx> wrote:
Hello -

I hope this isn't too trivial to ask but, I'm working through a proof
that appears to rely on the distributive property of polynomials, i.e.

(f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x)

without saying saying so. I've googled a bit, and I've found that
trigononometric functions e.g. sin(x) do not have this property,

Are you perhaps getting confused with linearity?

If f is linear, f(a*x + b*y) = a*f(x) + b*f(y)

And certainly sin(x) is not linear.

What was the "violation" you think you found with sin(x)?

- Randy
.