Re: Limit of a sequence
- From: The World Wide Wade <aderamey.addw@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 17 Apr 2008 11:07:49 -0700
In article
<4417266.1208321911927.JavaMail.jakarta@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
TCL <tlim1@xxxxxxx> wrote:
In article
<15986032.1208228781859.JavaMail.jakarta@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
forum.org>,
TCL <tlim1@xxxxxxx> wrote:
For positive integers n, define
s_n = sum_{k=1 to n} of (1/k)* (1-(1-1/n)^k).
Prove that s_n --> 1 as n-->infty.
n
--- n k 1
> - ( 1 - (1 - 1/n) ) -
--- k n
k=1
is a Riemann Sum for
|\1 1 -x
| - ( 1 - e ) dx
\| 0 x
with x = k/n.
As noted by WWW, this is not quite a Riemann sum. To justify your steps, one
needs to prove
Sum_{k=1 to n} (1/k)* (exp(-k/n) - (1-1/n)^k)
converge to 0 as n-->infty. The fact that lim (1-1/n)
^n=e^{-1} may be helpful, but that does not prove that
the above limit is 0.
Factor out exp(-k/n) and then ignore it: We're left with
Sum_{k=1 to n} (1/k)*(1 - exp(k/n)*(1-1/n)^k) (1).
Using ln(1-x) = - x + O(x^2) for small x, we have
ln(exp(k/n)*(1-1/n)^k) = k/n + k(-1/n + O(1/n^2)) = k*O(1/n^2).
Exponentiating back, using e^x = 1 + O(x) for x bounded gives
exp(k/n)*(1-1/n)^k = 1 + k*O(1/n^2).
So (1) = Sum_{k=1 to n} (1/k)*k*O(1/n^2) = O(1/n).
.
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