Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- From: Rskater <Rskater@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 17 May 2008 20:05:15 GMT
The World Wide Wade wrote:
In article <xyCXj.146482$Cj7.112637@pd7urf2no>,Thanks.
Rskater <Rskater@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
The World Wide Wade wrote:
In article <lppXj.144599$Cj7.137009@pd7urf2no>,
Rskater <Rskater@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Let us assume f(x) is a linear combination of an exponential function.
i.e. \[ f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i \exp(-b_i x) \] with $b_i>0$ for all i,
but some of $a_i$'s could be negative.
Also assume F(s) is the Laplace Transform of f(x).
Is the following true?
If F(s) has no positive roots then f(x) >0 for x>0.
Thanks
No, try f(x) = e^(-x) - 2e^(-2x).
Thank you for the counter example.
So, if I have F(s)> 0 for 0<s<1, would that work.
No, look at 2e^(-2x) - e^(-x). In this case F(s) > 0 for s > 0.
So F(s) >0 for s>=0 would be okay?
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- From: The World Wide Wade
- Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- References:
- Questions on Laplace transform
- From: Rskater
- Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- From: The World Wide Wade
- Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- From: Rskater
- Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- From: The World Wide Wade
- Questions on Laplace transform
- Prev by Date: Re: 4=3 A maths joke
- Next by Date: Re: Why can't such an example be given?
- Previous by thread: Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- Next by thread: Re: Questions on Laplace transform
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|