Re: Godel's Incompleteness theorem
- From: Tonico <Tonicopm@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 1 Jul 2008 08:59:55 -0700 (PDT)
On Jul 1, 5:20 pm, Neilist <Neilis...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Jun 28, 12:57 pm, Aatu Koskensilta <aatu.koskensi...@xxxxxx> wrote:********************************************************************
Neilist <Neilis...@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
Complete means that any truthful statement can be derived from the
axioms of the system.
No, it doesn't.
What a lousy response! "No, it doesn't". Childish. I'll just say
"yes it does".
Give the correct definition then, genius (sarcasm)!
You shouldn't get pissed off: the definition of complete axiomatic
system is really NOT what you said: an axiomatic system is complete if
for any (well-formed) statement P, either P or ~P can be proved within
the axioms.
Put in another form, it could be said that the system is complete if
any well-defined valid formula is a (provable) theorem within the
system.
If you say "any truthful statement can be derived", you are messing
things up: how can you know whether a statement is truthful if you
haven't yet proved it? It sounds like a tautology: if the statement
can be derived (I understand this as meaning proved), then it is
truthful, and of course the other way around: if it is truthful then
it is so because it can be "derived" (= proved) in the system.
Regards
Tonio
.
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