Re: Does x^2+y^2=z^50 have integer solutions?
- From: quasi <quasi@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 08 Jan 2009 22:33:05 -0500
On Fri, 09 Jan 2009 04:03:41 +0100, Timothy Murphy
<gayleard@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Bill Dubuque wrote:
Timothy Murphy <gayleard@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
alvarez.torres1@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
Does x^2 + y^2 = z^50 have integer solutions >0?
A positive integer n is expressible in the form n = x^2 + y^2
if and only if each prime q = 3 mod 4 occurs to an even power in n.
(See eg Hardy & Wright, "An introduction to the theory of numbers".)
It follows that your equation has a solution for _every_ z.
That's trivially true: 0^2 + (z^25)^2 = z^50, so there's
no need to infer it from theorem in the prior paragraph.
(Well, you need to exclude some z if you want both x,y > 0.)
Since the problem requires solutions >0, your remark doesn't help.
I wasn't purporting to give a complete answer to the question.
I was just pointing out that it reduces to the question
of which n are expressible in the form x^2 + y^2.
I mentioned Hardy & Wright,
reference to which would answer the question completely.
If you want a complete answer, n is expressible as x^2 + y^2
with x,y > 0 iff each prime q = 3 mod 4 occurs to an even power,
and some prime not = 3 mod 4 occurs in n.
So the problem is soluble with any non-zero z
divisible by some prime p not = 3 mod 4.
By some _odd_ prime not = 3 mod 4 (i.e. p = 1 mod 4).
But it looks like that clinches the question I was trying to answer.
Thus, based on your observations, I think the following iff condition
does the trick ...
Proposition:
Let n be a positive integer.
A positive integer z is such that the equation
x^2 + y^2 = z^(2n)
has a solution in positive integers x,y iff z has a prime factor
congruent to 1 mod 4.
quasi
.
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