Re: Integral of sin(x)/x
- From: David C. Ullrich <dullrich@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 24 Apr 2009 05:30:14 -0500
On Thu, 23 Apr 2009 10:00:06 -0700 (PDT), Jean-Christophe
<5.d@xxxxxxx> wrote:
On Apr 23, 12:43 pm, David C. Ullrich <dullr...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
What's there is really not a proof - there's no
justification for the step where you switch the
integrals
Which step ? Can you be more specific please ?
The step where you say
int int ... dx dt = int int ... dt dx.
Is it not allowed to switch them ?
I tought it was possible to do that.
It's possible under certain hypotheses. It's
obviously invalid here, since it results in
something involving an integral that does
not exist.
and in fact there's no such thing as the integral
of exp(it) dt from -infinity to infinity.
The integral of exp(i*2*PI*f*t) dt
from -infinity to infinity is a Dirac at (f),
this is used at large in Signal Theory.
No. The (distribution) Fourier transform of 1 is a delta
function. That doesn't say that that _integral_ is a
delta function.
Yes, sorry, I thought about { FT of exp(ix) }
David C. Ullrich
"Understanding Godel isn't about following his formal proof.
That would make a mockery of everything Godel was up to."
(John Jones, "My talk about Godel to the post-grads."
in sci.logic.)
.
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