Re: h/2pi
- From: Nicole <nicolebergmanx@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 2 Jun 2009 17:08:52 -0700 (PDT)
On Jun 1, 2:40 pm, Ray Vickson <RGVick...@xxxxxxx> wrote:
On May 31, 8:37 pm, Nicole <nicolebergm...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Hi,
What is the relevance of 2pi and why is h divided
by 2pi in quantum h-bar?
Nicole
E = h*f, where f = frequency. But, sometimes (often, in fact) it is
easier and more direct to express vibrations in terms of angular
velocity w instead of frequency. Since w = 2*pi*f we have E = h_bar*w,
where h_bar = h/(2*pi). There are other reasons, too.
R.G. Vickson
Thanks for this.
In the original Bohr orbital postulate. Why is
angular momentum L = M v r = n (h/2pi) where n
is each orbital
It doesn't follow from the formula you shared.
I just want to know how n(h/2pi) is related
to L= M v r. I understood the quantum concepts but
just certain derivations I don't know how derived
like the above.
Thanks!
Nicole
.
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