Re: Question about "polynomial evaluations"



Arturo Magidin wrote:
On Jun 17, 2:16 pm, Brian Chandler <imaginator...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

<snipped>

Yes; what I think you were aiming for is what I mentioned elsewhere:
polynomial functions as opposed to polynomials.

Ah, yes. Thanks -- your explanation made a lot of it clearer.

In fact, one can prove that if R is *any* finite field, then *every*
element of F(R) is a polynomial function; in particular, since F(R) is
finite, the map eval cannot be one-to-one.

Is this proof trivial? It looks as though you can just "construct" a
polynomial for any function, given an unlimited amount of "space" to
play with. Intuitively, it ought to be possible to make a polynomial
(function) that maps p to q, and everything except p to 0, then you
just add them together. [?]

x=0 x=1 "Evaluation"
0 0 0
1 1 1
0 1 S (for 'same')
1 0 D (for 'different')

OK, so I could rewrite these as the polynomial functions 0, 1, x, x+1,
but I'll leave the single character identifiers for ASCIIvenience, and
repeat the multiplication table for these polynomial functions:

* 0 1 S D
0 0 0 0 0
1 0 1 S D
S 0 S S 0
D 0 D 0 D

Is this right? I suppose this reminds me how feeble my grasp is on
what a ring homomorphism is. There's a "shape-preserving" map from
polynomials (which certainly don't have zero divisors) to polynomial
functions (which do?) Hmm, so it means that the "zero-
polynomials" (like x^2+x) are an ideal, which doesn't do much except
remind me how feeble my grasp is on what an ideal is.

Brian Chandler
.



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