Re: IDSA Guidelines...can anyone tell me what this means?


Rita Stanley wrote:

"Patients should be treated on the basis of clinical findings". Isn't
that fairly clear? Doesn't that contradict what the LDA says, above?

That is for em rashes only. That is the context of this paragraph.

Yes, that's what I thought initially, also...but look at the sentence
that immediately precedes it:

"Serologic testing is too insensitive in the acute phase (the first 2
weeks of infection) to
be helpful diagnostically" .

Why would you be talking about serologic testing in relation to an EM
rash...when you have just acknowledged that a clinical observation of
an EM is sufficient to diagnose?

Doesn't make sense...


Confirmation of the diagnosis by testing is required before treatment for
anything other than EM diagnosis.

What's your source for this, please? Not trying to be argumentative,
but just trying to understand this...don't doctors frequently treat on
"presumptive diagnoses"? In other words, if a diagnosis is not
"confirmed"...I always thought they had the latitude to treat .

And...if the "clinical" aspect is over-ruled...countered by a blood
test...isn't that really pure serodiagnosis?

.

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