Anti-Matter and the Big Bang
From: croesus (croesus321_at_yahoo.com)
Date: 07/29/04
- Next message: Steven Sharp: "Re: fission question (Why no China Syndrome with Daghlian and Slotin??)"
- Previous message: Sivleqw: "The Observational Collapse of Einsteinian Physics"
- Next in thread: John C. Polasek: "Re: Anti-Matter and the Big Bang"
- Reply: John C. Polasek: "Re: Anti-Matter and the Big Bang"
- Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ]
Date: 29 Jul 2004 08:32:19 -0700
It is my understanding of Feynman's description of anti-matter, that
it is totally consistent to say that anti-matter is nothing more than
real matter moving backward in time. In other words there is no need
to postulate a different type of matter – ordinary matter moving
backwards in time appears to our senses and instruments as
anti-matter. In fact QED allows for particles to travel backward in
time and if you exclude these probabilities in the "sum over
histories", you get wrong answers.
If this is true then the following two descriptions of the matter
anti-matter balance, which was believed to exist right after the big
bang, are each 100% consistent.
That, in the high energy soup right after the big bang:
There were equal quantities of matter and anti-matter and continuous
creation and annihilation of matter and anti-matter pairs, with the
entire assemblage moving forward in time
Or a Feynman view:
That, because of the high energy at that time, there was an equal
probability of finding matter moving either forward or back ward in
time, giving the apparancy of equal quantities of matter and
anti-matter and continuous creation and annihilation of matter and
anti-matter pairs, with the whole assemblage tightly bound in time.
I'm highlighting the Feynman description of a balanced matter
anti-matter assemblage as a starting point to discussing a related
issue.
One of the big questions in physics is why, in our universe at this
time, there is only matter and no anti-matter. Basic theory seems to
imply that, in the high energy soup right after the big bang, there
was continuous, spontaneous creation and annihilation of equal
quantities of matter and anti-matter. If so, how did only one side
(what we call matter) emerge?
My idea on this is based on Feynman's' description. In the quantum
soup right after the big bang, with the continuous spontaneous
creation and annihilation of equal quantities of matter and
anti-matter, quantum fluctuations would have caused temporary
imbalances at points. These imbalances would allow matter or
anti-matter to slightly over balance in specific regions.
In small areas where anti-matter exceeded matter, after annihilation,
only anti-matter was left, which now proceeded to separate in time
from the tight, time bound regions, by continuing to move away
(backward) in time.
In areas where matter temporarily exceeded anti-matter, after
annihilation, only matter was left, and it continued to separate (in
time) from other regions by moving away from the tight, time bound
areas, into the future and is what we see today.
In other words there are still equal quantities of matter and
anti-matter, they are now just separated in time!
- Next message: Steven Sharp: "Re: fission question (Why no China Syndrome with Daghlian and Slotin??)"
- Previous message: Sivleqw: "The Observational Collapse of Einsteinian Physics"
- Next in thread: John C. Polasek: "Re: Anti-Matter and the Big Bang"
- Reply: John C. Polasek: "Re: Anti-Matter and the Big Bang"
- Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ]
Relevant Pages
|
|
