Re: Virtual Particle confusion
From: PD (pdraper_at_yahoo.com)
Date: 02/25/05
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Date: 25 Feb 2005 12:58:14 -0800
Ranando King wrote:
> "PD" <pdraper@yahoo.com> wrote in message
> news:1109354953.319263.10300@l41g2000cwc.googlegroups.com...
> > Ranando King wrote:
> > > "PD" <pdraper@yahoo.com> wrote in message
> > > news:1109300342.229193.318810@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...
> > > >
> > > > Ranando King wrote:
> > > <snipped>
> > > > > Random just means that we're missing some information.
> > > >
> > > > This is not true, and that's a bias that must be overcome.
> > >
> > > If you want to buy into that particular philosophy, far be it
from me
> > to
> > > stop you. However logic, rationality, common sense, and human
> > definitions
> > > all posit that random things never achieve any kind of stable
state.
> >
> > Maybe your constrained logic, unambitious rationality, parochial
common
> > sense, and your personal human definitions posit that, but in terms
of
> > physics, you're talking out of your hat. Randomness is not only a
> > common, stable state, but it is *foundational* to much of what goes
on.
> > Taking your mind off quantum mechanics for a bit, let's talk about
> > thermodynamics.
>
> For the sake of rational discussion, I'll ignore the pseudo-insulting
> terminology....
Take it as you wish. Your terminology suggested that anybody with any
common sense would see things your way, which I found to be insulting.
>
> > Temperature of a body is not even *defined* without random kinetic
> > motion. If the motion were not random, temperature is not a proper
> > description.
>
> How so? The word "random" is neither stated nor implied in the
definition of
> temperature. The motion of the particles of a substance whos
temperature is
> being measured is not random. If you know the postition, orientation,
> velocity (speed & direction), mass, charge, and necessary outside
factors
> like boundary conditions on the container of all the particles at any
> selected point, you can predict the motion of every individual
particle both
> forward and backward in time using a painfully long series of
simultaneous
> equations.
Yes, but diffussion is NOT a reversible process, even if you can
account for each collision microscopically. Why not???
Moreover, you are wrong in saying there is no difference between random
and non-random kinetic energy. The second is associated with, e.g.
macroscopic translational energy. The first is associated with
temperature. There is limited ability to extract the latter from the
former -- that limit is what Carnot discovered and marks the line in
the sand.
I don't want to push the analogy too far -- the randomness of quantum
mechanics is different than the randomness of a thermal system.
However, you said that randomness is *only* a lack of information, a
point that I disagree with. Randomness implies physics on its own.
Temperature is a *statistical* property. If you think otherwise, tell
me how to find the temperature of a single particle or a pair of
particles.
>
> "Random" only ever actually appears at the quantum level. The reason
it does
> can be found in Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle, as it is
currently
> understood. In order to know the position of a particle at any point
in
> time, you've got to observe it somehow. By observing these particles,
we
> invariably change at least 1 of its properites. Likewise, to measure
the
> energy that a particle has, you are more likely than not to change at
least
> 1 of its other properties.
That's one interpretation (the Copenhagen one). Not the only one, mind
you. Moreover, it's simply another attempt to get "under" quantum
mechanics.
> The HUP merely states that we change the
> properties of those things we observe as we observe them, so it's not
> presently possible to know all of the properties of something we're
trying
> to observe.
>
> If you don't understand that this is admitting that we can't know all
the
> information, then I feel I'm not the one to explain it to you. It's
not
> Heisenberg's *RANDOM* Principle. It's Heisenberg's *Uncertainty*
> Principle.... Uncertainty, as in not sure of. Just because you're not
sure
> of a value doesn't mean that the value is actually random.
Nuh-uh. The quantum correlations between distant electron spins points
to the fact that there is more going on here than the Clumsy Thumbs
model of HUP.
>
> > Moreover, entropy is a *measure* of the randomness of a
> > system. The 2nd law of thermodynamics is specifically a statement
about
> > causal ordering and entropy.
>
> Entropy... Chaos-theory... the basic principle that all things seek
to fall
> apart... the idea that things prefer to go from structured states
(high
> energy) to unstructured (low energy) is perfectly valid. It's just
the old
> concept that "nature abhores a vacuum" repeated. It's far easier for
the
> universe to maintain a state of constant, unilaterally equal
potential (high
> entropy) than it is to maintain clustered, high potential regions
with
> low-to-no potential areas inbetween (low entropy). That follows
common
> sense.
>
> The second law of thermodynamics simply says that you can't move
energy in a
> closed system from high entropy to low entropy.
Define "high entropy" and "low entropy".
> Treating entropy as a
> measure of randomness is a serious mistake... a mistake large enough
to keep
> the obviously deterministic macroscopic universe from being
understood on a
> sub-atomic scale. Entropy is a measure of the lack of isolated
structure.
> Think of it this way. Suppose a universe as large as our own existed
having
> no virtual particles, and no other energy outside of a single,
stationary
> electron. That universe would have very low (near 0) entropy because
all of
> it's energy would be confined to a relatively very small space.
Suppose now
> that another universe existed that was just like the previous one I
> described save for its size being infinitesimally larger than the
volume of
> the electron it contains. That universe would have an exceptionally
high
> (near infinite) entropy because its energy would be spread out fairly
> consistently across its entire volume.
And that would be wrong. Your values of entropy in both cases are
wrong. Count allowable states.
>
> Neither case showed any "random" properties. That's because
randomness
> doesn't belong in the description of entropy, or for that matter,
anything
> else. (Note the example given uses an assumption that an electron is
*NOT* a
> point particle.)
>
> >
> > By the way, the great thermodynamicists of the 19th century also
ran
> > into resistance from the determinists, who maintained that such
> > descriptions of randomness were abdicating the search for the true,
> > underlying nature of things. In fact, it turned out that entropy IS
the
> > true, underlying nature of things.
>
> > > Since
> > > quantum physics is merely the physics of states for sub-atomic
> > things, then
> > > you're left to assume that all of these "random" sub-atomic
states
> > tend to
> > > add up to a stable atomic state. That doesn't work unless each
> > "random"
> > > state tends toward particular values most of the time.
> >
> > No, and you don't know how quantum summation over all possible
> > histories works. I suggest you read a little book by Feynman called
> > QED, that describes this process better -- no hidden tendencies, no
> > underlying variables, no masked causes.
>
> If you truely understood the summation yourself, you would see that
it in
> fact is itself a method of hiding causality and looking only at the
> outcomes.
Not sure I know what you mean by this. Where is causality hidden?
The quantum interference is part of the causality!
> When it comes down to it, that summation is a method of decision
> making, not significanly different from the process most people use
when
> making complex decisions. Think about the thoughts flying around in
your
> mind when your spouse/significant other is upset with you, when you
don't
> know the reason. You tend to take the action that you think will
cause you
> the least grief. You make this decision without knowing why such a
decision
> was necessary.
That's a philosophical and unsupported generalization.
>
> > > If that's true, then
> > > there's got to be a fundamental reason behind that tendancy.
Quantum
> > physics
> > > merely states that there is a tendancy and shows how strong that
> > tendancy
> > > is. However, it doesn't even come close to explaining why that
> > tendancy
> > > exists. Therefore, we're missing information, information that
would
> > likely
> > > lead to the elimination of the dependency on statistics in
quantum
> > physics.
> >
> > You are espousing what's called "hidden variable" model of quantum
> > mechanics, which may make intuitive sense to you, but you're far
from
> > the first to think of it. But intuitive good sense does not make it
> > correct, let alone unavoidably correct. Hidden variable theories
have
> > definite experimental predictions that are testable. Read the
> > literature on this subject. The experimental tests fail. Nature
does
> > NOT need hidden variables and in fact is inconsistent with that
> > picture, as counterintuitive as that may seem.
>
> I know I'm not the first to have this idea, and I won't be the last.
Think
> of it this way. Quantum physics cannot currently be used to describe
the
> macroscopic universe.
And on what basis do you make THAT statement? Is a laser a macroscopic
object or not?
>Every attempt to do so to date has failed.
What attempts are you referring to?
> What does
> that mean? It means there's something we're not yet understanding,
right?
Well, THAT's true, but it doesn't say that QM is full of hokum.
> String theory was invented to try and find that something. M-Theory
was
> invented to try and find that something. QED, QCD, and probably other
> theories were invented to try and find that something. All have
failed to
> date.
QED and QCD have failed? How so?
>Does that mean that nature does not need the physics describing
> sub-atomic stuff to be consistent with the physics for macrosocpic
stuff?
> That's the kind of argument you just fed me.
Nonsense. The macroscopic limit of every well-defined QM theory
reproduces what we see classically.
>
> > >
> > > That's my particular philosophy.
> > >
> > > <snipped>
> > > > > You made 1 mistake. if M > E/c^2 > 0 where M is the mass of
an
> > > > electron and
> > > > > E is the energy represented by the near zero invariant mass,
then
> > the
> > > > > electron will be chosen as there is too much invariant mass
to
> > create
> > > > a 0
> > > > > mass particle. Remember, the particle P attempted is the P
whos M
> > is
> > > > the
> > > > > nearest match GREATER THAN or equal to the invariant mass
> > represented
> > > > by E.
> > > >
> > > > Ah, but what if the invariant mass available is *less* than
zero?
> > That
> > > > is certainly physically possible, and in fact it happens all
the
> > time.
> > > > In this case, again, a neutrino or a photon would be a better
> > match.
> > >
> > > Consider that most cases of negative mass can be resolved by
flipping
> > the
> > > perspective, usually around the time axis. So, to satiate your
> > objection,
> > > we'll just rewrite the equality as such:
> > >
> > > M >= |E|/c^2
> > >
> > > so as to constrain the result to positive values of mass. To
prove
> > this
> > > little conjecture wrong, all you have to do is point to data that
> > shows
> > > where reactions produce a virtual photon without also binding the
> > remaining
> > > invariant mass according to the rule I've posited.
> >
> > That seems rather arbitrary, particularly in a system where you
have
> > one contributing particle with negative virtual mass and another
with
> > positive virtual mass. What gives you the right to switch one and
not
> > the other?
>
> The same thing that gives mathematicians the right to say that if a^2
= b^2
> then |a| = |b| which is perfectly fine even if a = -b.
>
> > Moreover, your prescription still does not work. Take two particles
A
> > and B which have central mass values of, say 140 MeV and 142 MeV,
> > respectively, but which are otherwise completely distinct. The
> > invariant mass of a virtual state is measured to be 139.5 MeV.
> > According to your prescription, this would *always* be assigned to
> > particle A. However, it is quite likely that the particle will
instead
> > be identified as particle B, based on conserved quantum numbers.
This
> > is routinely seen in experiment, but is inconsistent with your
scheme.
>
> Unlike those of you that believe "random" has a place in physics,
that just
> leads me to believe that there's another term to be considered that
is a
> factor of the original contributing masses. My first guess would be
to
> examine the charges involved to see if there is a pattern. There's
likely
> something in the properties of the original masses involved that
creates an
> additional limiting factor. It might be that particle A has no charge
and
> particle B does. So when the interaction occurs, if there is a net
charge
> left behind with the 139.5 MeV, only the 142 MeV charged particle is
a
> viable option.
>
> The bottom line: Just because a pattern hasn't been found doesn't
imply that
> there isn't one.
>
> R.
So you are saying that charge and lepton number and QCD color and
baryon number contribute to mass? How so? How does your model work to
put that together?
PD
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