Re: Invariant Galilean Transformations (FAQ) On All Laws

From: eleaticus (eleaticus_at_bellsouth.net)
Date: 08/16/04 

Date: Sun, 15 Aug 2004 20:28:27 -0500

"N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)" <N: dlzc1 D:cox T:net@nospam.com> wrote in
message news:hXRTc.65000$xk.24683@fed1read01...
> "eleaticus" <eleaticus@bellsouth.net> wrote in message
> news:P7QTc.7425$ii.5343@bignews5.bellsouth.net...
>
> Another reason to update my kill file...
>
> David A. Smith

I take that (correctly?) as meaning you cannot show Maxwell non-invariant
under the galilean translatory transformation without the spurious
atheoretical time transform, t'=t, being asserted?

Or that with the equally (in)valid v'=v transform being asserted in the case
of the Lorentz-Einstein transforms you do see that Maxwell is not invariant?

If you are too dishonest to admit the fact(s), or too whatever to show their
non-factual nature, thanks for never darkening my pathway again!

eleaticus
>
>

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