Re: What causes time dilation?

From: Bjoern Feuerbacher (feuerbac_at_thphys.uni-heidelberg.de)
Date: 08/31/04 

Date: Tue, 31 Aug 2004 11:35:08 +0200

TomGee wrote:
> "Bill Hobba" <bhobba@rubbish.net.au> wrote in message news:<yHRYc.13974$D7.8259@news-server.bigpond.net.au>...
>
>>I have no idea (although I do agree with Feynmans discussion in The
>>Character of Physical Law). What I do know is that we all have an intuitive
>>idea of this thing called time and in an inertial frame time is supposed to
>>be homogeneous meaning exactly the same experiment done at different times
>>will take exactly the same amount of time to happen. This intuitively means
>>that the count of some repeating process gives us an intuitive measure of
>>time. But science is not based on intuition, so time is defined as what
>>clocks measure ie the count of processes that repeat themselves over and
>>over.
>>
>>Bill
>>
>
> Everything you say above is correct, except that now we have the
> opportunity to know just what time really is, if we are willing to
> accept it. SR's resolution to the so-called Twin Paradox proves that
> time passes slower for objects in faster motion than other compared
> objects. I contend that the reason for that is because time is a
> property of matter and it passes inversely proportional to a discrete
> object's state of motion.

1) Your contention is not necessary, since SR already explains the
reason for this (different frames of references and the geometry of the
fourdimensional spacetime, i.e. Minkowski space).
2) Where do you get your idea that "time is a property of matter" from?
Do you want to imply that for things which do not consist of matter
(i.e. light), time dilation does not apply? That would contradict the
Doppler effect...
3) Time passes *inversely proportional* to the state of motion??? That
*totally* contradicts SR!
4) Why did you say "discrete" object? How is that relevant here?

Bye,
Bjoern

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