Re: Lorentz transformations - a derivation
From: jem (xxx_at_xxx.xxx)
Date: 01/09/05
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Date: Sun, 09 Jan 2005 08:32:39 -0500
Bill Hobba wrote:
> "jem" <xxx@xxx.xxx> wrote in message
> news:sdSDd.25692$Q%4.10400@fed1read06...
>>Remember this proposed definition? An inertial reference frame is a
>>reference frame in which all stationary standard clocks tick at the same
>>rate.
>
>
> How do you sync those clocks?
It's not necessary to synchronize clocks in order to compare their tick
rates.
I am pretty sure you will need the assumption
> of space being homogeneous and isotropic to ensure your chosen method is
> valid. When I first read his views on the matter quite some time ago now I
> thought and thought about it and was forced to concede he had a point. For
> example construct a coordinate system from practically rigid rods, sync
> clocks via light (all of which involve further physical assumptions such as
> homogeneity and isotropy of space to ensure the method of syncing works -
> otherwise it is simply a convention that can be challenged - you see posters
> doing it all the time), check if a particle is free then measure its motion.
> If all the previously mentioned problems were not enough the problem now is
> how do you ensure a particle is free? Exactly what does free mean? Does it
> mean if we can not find something in the frame that will not affect its
> motion then it is free? Exactly what is meant by something not affecting
> its motion? - does that apply to forces of acceleration? One might like to
> define an inertial frame by for example the absence of inertial or
> gravitational forces as indicated by accelerometers. But again such a
> definition relies on further physical assumptions based on our intuition
> about force. That seems to be the problem with Newton's first law - one
> really needs further physical assumptions to make it meaningful and those
> assumptions are all based on physical intuition and/or some convention such
> as the Einstein sync procedure. If you do not make these further
> assumptions then you run into the problem that Bilge alludes to 'We define a
> straight line as the path of an inertial object and we define an inertial
> object as one which moves in a straight line' The best way to operationally
> define an inertial frame I think is via the EEP.
The proposed definition says nothing about the motion of particles, free
or otherwise.
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