Re: Asynchronous Anisotropy Experiment
From: greywolf42 (mingstb_at_marssim-ss.com)
Date: 02/05/05
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Date: Sat, 05 Feb 2005 18:40:31 GMT
"shevek" <shevek4@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1107275524.250441.131030@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...
>
> greywolf42 wrote:
> > shevek <shevek4@yahoo.com> wrote in message
> > news:1107024922.718288.107410@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...
> > > Your claim that Lorentz "addressed all experiments that depend on
> > > wave phase or interference" is laughable. Clearly you forgot to add
> > > some context or restrictions on the experiments he addressed, for
> > > example he probably didn't comment on ULF ocean acoustical
> > > phenomenon or NMR.
> >
> > Since we were discussing *light wave* experiments, that would be the
> > context. Your laughter is all up your own sleeve.
>
> Thanks for your reply, indeed this should be no laughing matter.
>
> As to *light wave* experiments, you must admit this is a rather broad
> category of possible experiments! With many orders of magnitude of
> spectrum to work with, any possible arrangement of physical detectors
> and timing of pulses.. and you are also allowing any other machinery
> as well (e.g. clocks).. how can one speak intelligently about such a
> broad class of experiments?
By addressing a general property of light waves that affects the whole class
of experiments -- as Lorentz did.
> > > I find no way your statement can make sense. Any test of what
> > > specific type? By 'based on' do you mean, 'in which is used' ?
> >
> > Of the specific type that uses wave interference or phase shift.
> > This covers the MMX, Krisher, etc.
{snip higher levels}
> > > Refresh your memory: http://tinyurl.com/5hnrt
> >
> > My memory refreshed on that post, but nothing changes.
> >
> > That post is about an experiment that actually *times* the
> > propogation of light waves. It does not rely upon measuring
> > a phase shift or an interference effect.
>
> WHat is a time measurement but a measurement of phase shift?
A time measurement is a measurement of time.
A measurement of a phase shift is a measurement of phase shift.
They are not the same.
> When you
> say 1:00 oclock for example, you are talking about a phase shift of one
> hour. Time is measured cyclically.. the phase is the measurement of
> time.
Time is cyclical (to my knowledge) only in some Eastern cultures. Time is
sequential (monatonically increasing) in scientific measurements. Phase is
a word that applies to waves -- not time.
{snip higher levels}
> > > > An actual timing test does not depend upon waveform.
>
> I don't know what you mean by waveform. Waves can certainly be used to
> measure time, you must agree to that - waves from the sun are a nice
> primitive clock.
Certainly waves can be used to build a clock. Just like springs, rotating
flywheels, dripping water, etc. However, timing tests do not depend on
waves, or on springs, or on flywheels, etc.
Now, what I was discussing was the fact that one need not assume that matter
is unaffected by it's passage through the aether -- and that detecting the
shift of waveforms is not a timing test at all.
{snip higher levels}
> > > ? ? You are confused by their attempt to add theoretical comments
> > > to their experimental results.. quite understandable really. The
> > > experimental results presented do not include any CMBR adjustment.
> >
> > According to Krisher, they *do* adjust for the CMBR. Krisher
> > actually does not provide *any* data in their paper.
>
> Sorry, I don't understand. I thought the figures in the paper showed
> the sum and difference of measured phase shifts - no CMBR correction.
The figures are *after* adjustment to be at rest in the CMBR. See the joint
review of Krisher by Paul Stowe and myself at:
http://groups-beta.google.com/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/cdfc0c6a96dc2
807
{snip the rest}
--
greywolf42
ubi dubium ibi libertas
{remove planet for e-mail}
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