Re: Two photons... relative distance question

Dear Curious:

"Curious" <anthonyroseuk-curious@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:1115518770.120380.83510@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> No no, I'm no Dave Sepalla whoever he is.

Congratulations. Because he has made a life's work out of not
understanding that Science is about measurement (and modelling,
and prediction, repeat ad infinitum), and insists that we have
access to some absolute *philosophical* frame of reference.
Where distant things can occur *now*, and we can know about it
*now*, without recourse to mundane "communication limited by c".

> Sorry to step on an old
> bruise. My name is Anthony Rose, I'm
> twisting my brain into a pretzel around
> this stuff for the first time and am always
> quite prepared to be persuaded by a
> rational discussion.

I would recommend getting your hands on "Spacetime Physics" by
Taylor and Wheeler.

> What I'm confused by is my
> understanding of the relativity definition of
> time within a specific inertial frame of
> reference. My understanding is that
> within a specific inertial frame of reference
> in space-time, if you consider a single
> moment, that moment applies to
> all locations.

No. All locations have moments. All locations pass through
their local coordinate (*,*,*,t1) and then through (*,*,*,t2) and
so on. But inferences of a relationship between t1s at remote
locations are just that... inferences that cannot be
experimentally "assured" or "made absolute".

> To put it another way, for the purposes
> of calculations in SR, if you define
> co-ordinates (*,*,*,t), you can vary *,*,*
> for any value of x,y,z without that
> variance impacting t?

No. Not between non-local coordinate spaces.

David A. Smith


.

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