Re: Helical Particle Waves.

To -------,

In the text book 'Special Relativity' by A. P. French, the "Ultimate speed
experiment" (Fig. 1-3) shows that the kinetic energy for electrons, showing
asymptotic approach to v = c, approaches infinity. This is an experimental
fact, 'not an assumption on my part of the results of Special Relativity in
the first place'.

Even though I don't agree with a lot what French says about relativity, I
don't ignore his experimental results. I just interpret them differently.

Consequently my deduction of formula [3] makes perfect sense to me.
If you don't agree with my deduction, there is little more to be said.

Len.
...........................................................

----- Original Message -----
From: <........................>
To: "Len Gaasenbeek" <gaasbeek@xxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Tuesday, July 26, 2005 4:19 PM
Subject: Re: Helical Particle waves


> Hello Len,
>
> Thanks for your reply.
>
> I have spent a lot of time thinking about how equation 3 can be deduced
> without knowing the results of special relativity in the first place. My
> conclusion is that you cannot.
>
> You assumed: "Now we know that the kinetic energy of the helical wave
particle
> approaches infinity as its linear velocity approaches c. Since its linear
> speed is limited to c this means that its peripheral speed must become
> infinitely large for its helical speed to become infinite. This means
that
> for practical purposes its helical speed approaches its peripheral speed
when
> its linear speed approaches c, since the peripheral speed contributes the
lion
> share to its kinetic energy."
>
> Which is a good assumption, but assumes the results of special relativity
in
> the first place. I have transfered your assumption in graphical form (see
> attachment). Vreal= your Vh and 'b' is your Vp. From this diagram you can
in
> fact derive all SR equations, including the ratio of Vreal to v, which
> correctly equates to gamma= 1/(1-v2/c2)^0.5
>
> I used T^2= c^2 + Vreal^2 (pythagoras)
> and T/Vreal = c/v (by similar triangles)
>
> The nice thing (and most encouraging) about your statements, should not be
> that you arrive at the relation for Vreal/v = gamma, but to the fact that
the
> right angled triangle v,b,Vreal can in fact be physically modelled by a
> helical wave, and also that Vreal (or Vh) is in fact a REAL velocity.
>
> You may enjoy an article which I found quite interesting here:
>
> http://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath232/kmath232.htm
>
> This one does not assume any result from SR, and gets to the same correct
> relation for gamma. The slight problem with this one is the use of
> probability. Anyway, the spin within spin mechanism is also present in
this
> model, and also found in cosmology (ie in nature). Note that the helix is
not
> the only function that satisfies the model.
>
> Also, you might enjoy reading my food for thought section on my site:
> http://blazelabs.com
> I know you will like it... and you may one day rename your article:
Helical
> Standing-wave Travelling waves.
>
> I would like to ask you if you have any other papers which are not
on-line.
>
> Regards
> .......
>
>
> "Len Gaasenbeek" <gaasbeek@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: <........................>
> > To: <gaasbeek@xxxxxxxxxx>
> > Sent: Friday, July 22, 2005 12:24 PM
> > Subject: Helical Particle waves
> >
> >
> > > Hello Sir,
> > >
> > > I really beleive that the mechanism governing EM waves is quite close
to
> > the
> > > helical model you suggest. It surely makes more sense than what is
> > currently
> > > the accepted model.
> > >
> > > However I do have problems understanding how you arrived at the
relation
> > shown
> > > here:
> > >
> > > http://www2.rideau.net/gaasbeek/f1_3.gif
> > >
> > > I would be very pleased if you can clarify this equation for me.
> > >
> > > Thanks in advance
> > > .......
> > >
> > ...........................................................
> > To .......,
> >
> > In answer to your question above, I concluded that the kinetic energy of
a
> > relativistic particle which is accelerated closer and closer to the
speed of
> > light c continues to increase, not because its 'relativistic mass'
increases
> > but because it continues to increase its speed by increasing its
peripheral
> > speed.
> >
> > That is to say, even though the helical wave particle can't travel or
> > progress through space at a speed greater than c, its helical speed can
> > increase to a speed greater than c as it is a combination of its linear
AND
> > peripheral speed. Of course its helical wave VELOCITY continuously
changes,
> > since it continues to change DIRECTION as it follows its helical
trajectory.
> > However the kinetic energy of the relativistic particle is a function of
its
> > speed, regardless of its direction, since k = 1/2 m v^2.
> >
> > Now we know that the kinetic energy of the helical wave particle
approaches
> > infinity as its linear velocity approaches c. Since its linear speed is
> > limited to c this means that its peripheral speed must become infinitely
> > large for its helical speed to become infinite. This means that for
> > practical purposes its helical speed approaches its peripheral speed
when
> > its linear speed approaches c, since the peripheral speed contributes
the
> > lion share to its kinetic energy.
> >
> > Or as v(linear) approaches c, v(helical) approaches v(peripheral).
> > Or, v(linear) / c = v(peripheral) / v(helical) [3]
> >
> > Now the above tends to hold for long helical waves of low frequency.
> > In reality the most energetic helical wave particles tend to be of high
> > frequency and short wave-length and amplitude. So how do these
particles
> > continue to gain kinetic energy as they are accelerated, since their
> > peripheral speed tends to approach zero?
> >
> > The explanation is that all helical wave particles spin around their own
> > axis as they travel along.
> > Long wave, low frequency helical wave particles spin relatively slowly
> > around their axis.
> > Short wave, high frequency helical wave particles spin rapidly around
their
> > own axis.
> >
> > Since the spin of a particle contributes to its kinetic energy, in the
case
> > of a high frequency
> > helical wave particle, its spin contributes most to its kinetic energy
> > rather than its nearly none existent peripheral speed.
> >
> > By the way, the sideways gyroscopic force the relativistic helical wave
> > particle exerts on itself is a function of the rate at which it spins
around
> > its own axis and the rate at which its axis gyrates (the two are
> > inter-related since the latter is equal to its helical wave frequency)
as it
> > travels along. Consequently, the higher the spin of a relativistic
> > particle, the smaller its amplitude and peripheral speed.
> >
> > See formula [6].
> >
> > Enjoy, Len.
> > ............................................................


.

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