Re: why lorentz transformation?
- From: "Androcles" <Androcles@ MyPlace.org>
- Date: Sun, 04 Sep 2005 20:22:37 GMT
"David McAnally" <D.McAnally@i'm_a_gnu.uq.net.au> wrote in message
news:dffeka$1klh$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
| "Sue..." <suzysewnshow@xxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
| >I don't see any 1/r^2 term in your work.
|
| That is about a SOLUTION of the equations.
ROFLMAO!
I don't see sine or cosine mentioned anywhere!
| Can't you even tell the
| difference between equations and their solutions, or is this
distinction
| too hard for your minuscule intellect?
http://www.sst.ph.ic.ac.uk/angus/Lectures/compphys/node28.html
alpha = c dt/dx sin(k dx)
Too hard for your non-existent neuron?
Androcles.
.
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