Re: Acceleration


vern@xxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> shevek wrote:
> > vern@xxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
>
> [...]
>
> > > But, rather, particles can be considered
> > > aether sinks with circulatory flows. With that perspective, particles
> > > can only be moved by the influence of other aether sinks (gravity is
> > > the example you gave). Magnetic fields are another example of
> > > circulatory aether flows. Charge is only the ability of the
> > > circulatory system to couple with other systems (dipoles).
> >
> > I know you like the aether sink idea, but where does the aether go?
>
> The formula for consumption matches Newton's Law of Gravitation.
>
> F(gravity) = G(M/R^2) (1)
>
> F(sink) = K'(Q/R^2) (2)
>
> Where G is the Gravitational Constant, K' is the sink-vortex constant
> and Q is the rate of consumption of mass or the total number of
> aethrons consumed by the sink per unit time.
>
> There is also a circulatory pattern, so not all of the aethrons are
> being consumed.
>

You didn't answer my question: where are they going?

Do these aethrons appear somewhere else via a wormhole or something?

Also, you give these particles mass.. I prefer a description of mass
density as a statistical property of their motion. Otherwise, you will
have a very massive vacuum on your hands, and still remain with the
problem of explaining what mass is. I suppose a massive vacuum does
fit in with your idea of an "aether resistance"...


> > It
> > doesn't make sense to me. I see a particle like an electron analagous
> > to a hurricane.. it isn't a "sink" of air, rather a stable low or high
> > pressure disturbance.
>
> Kinematically, doesn't it have to either be a circular-vortex or a
> sink-vortex? The sink-vortex provides the forces for elliptical
> orbits, gravity, the release of energy in quanta and angular momentum;
> circular-vortices don't.
>

Why not? A circular vortex (with conservation of particles) can
maintain a radial pressure gradient, see e.g. a hurricane or Burger's
vortex solution to the Navier-Stokes equations.

The continuity equation is the very basis of fluid mechanics, I
wouldn't abandon it until we absolutely have to.


> > Do you think aethrons are destroyed somehow in a
> > particle?
>
> If the consumption is on a big enough scale (as in planets) then it
> adds to the mass. I guess we need to play with the formula for
> consumption to get an idea of what it would mean for, say, an atom.
>

If you are talking about destruction of aethrons then you are talking
about a sub-aether. That's getting a little ahead of the game,
hopefully we don't need to go there yet.


> > A charge is a divergence of electric field, a monopole
> > rather than a dipole (unless you have two opposite charges close
> > together).
>
> But in an aether vortex model, the field is the vortex, so charge is
> just the influence the medium has on a mass particle. Negative charge
> is a sink and positive charge is a source.
>

Do you envision the aethrons going into an electron then and instantly
emerging elsewhere from a positron? And why that choice of sink/source
and not its converse?


>
> > > Photons are
> > > unnecessary from the aether perspective and light is modeled as a
> > > periodical compression pulse in the aether which causes the quantum
> > > effect.
> >
> > A compressional wave is longitudinal and not transverse. This doesn't
> > model light well at all. THat's the reason some people moved to
> > quasi-solid models of the aether, to allow transverse stress/strain
> > waves. If you allow aethrons to have spin, you can model light as a
> > spin wave through the fluid medium. Such waves are transverse and can
> > be polarized, and do not a compressive medium.
>
> Using an elastic medium model a wave appears to be longitudinal motion,
> but using a fluid-dynamic model a wave can be cause by nothing more
> than a source. The disturbance is propagated in spherical fashion and
> has both longitudinal and transverse momentum, in fact, a force in
> every direction except backwards. There is no dependency on the
> elasticity of the medium, it's just particles bouncing off of
> particles with the average collision-free distance between collisions
> of the particles longer in the opposite direction from the disturbance.

Particle collisions are not required for waves to propagate in a
fluid!! Remarkably, they play almost no role in affecting e.g. sounds
travelling through the air, despite the small mean free path.

Also, a fluid-dynamic model with point particles does not support
transverse waves. The addition of further degrees of freedom in the
particles (such as spin) will also allow transverse waves.


> If polarization is re-examined using this model, it can be explained.
> An attempt was made to polarize sound waves with some success back in
> the 1800's. The difference is that you don't have the interaction
> of the wave with the polarizer, so the technique involved reflecting
> the waves in different directions.
>

I guess it depends on your definition. If by "sound" you mean only
fluctuations of scalar pressure, then there's no room for polarization.
If you consider specific rotation or vibration states of the
molecules, then you could probably observe some kind of polarization.

Cheers -

.

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