Re: On the light-like interval
- From: karandash2000@xxxxxxxxx
- Date: 6 Apr 2007 22:37:26 -0700
On Apr 6, 9:04 pm, "Phil" <cms...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Apr 6, 9:29 pm, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Phil wrote:
Recently I came to the realization that the light-light interval is an
interval whose end points describe the same point in space-time.
This is simply not true. When I look at it, Vega and my eyeball are NOT
the "same point in space-time". Not even close! They are two distinct
points separated by a null interval, that's all.
Tom Roberts
It occurred to me that my inertial frame displaces in spacetime which
would explain why I can stake two distinct coordinate measurements to
the same point and describe sufficiently why the events are not
separated in the space-time object, (null interval). So you are
saying that it doesn't follow that a null interval means zero
separation in spacetime of the events. Since a null interval doesn't
describe the distance between two events associated with the relative
motion of light, why wouldn't it also follow that an interval does not
always describe the spacetime distance between two events?
If an interval doesn't give the space-time distance between two
events, what is a better description or definition of the interval
then? Its not a rhetorical question. I am genuinely trying to
resolve this.
Imbecile, light-like interval means (cdt)^2-(dx^2+dy^2+dz^2)=0
It does NOT mean dx^2+dy^2+dz^2=0.
This is what several of us have been trying to drill thru your skull.
.
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