Re: Potential energy in Einstein's 1905 Relativity

On 12 mayo, 00:50, karandash2...@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
On May 11, 7:51 pm, v...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
<Raphaelshito long drwan imbecilities snipped>

Einstein doesn't use the word TOTAL in his paper, but by the historic
context we can deduce that when he writes "energy of the body" he is
referring to its total energy.

You are finally learning, old fart.

In a similar way Einstein doesn't use
the word POTENTIAL, but by the historic context we can deduce that
when he writes "energy of the body at rest"

But he never writes "energy of the body at rest" , you must have a
cubanese translation (or is it the soviet one?) .
He refers to the body being at rest in one frame, old fart, that's
all. The "body" has just emitted some gama rays in the frame of rest,
old unemployable imbecile, so it has energy. And it isn't potential,
pathetic historic fraudster.

<rest of Raphaelshito's cretinsisms mercifully snipped>

Now confusing words with ideas? I thought you had this problem only
with letters. Of course that Einstein never writes "energy of the body
at rest", he writes in German, no? In the English version that we can
obtain at http://www.fourmilab.cs , the relevant phrase is "Let there
be a stationary body in the system S, and let its energy referred to
the system S be E_0. Let the energy of the body relative to the system
S' moving as above with the velocity v, be H_0". As you can see,
Einstein refers to the energy of the body at rest in system S(S0),
denoting it as E_0; and refers also to the energy of the body moving
in system S'(S1) with velocity v, denoting it as H_0. Both references
are made BEFORE the emission of light. Your derivation about the body
having energy because it emits some light energy (", so it has
energy") is totally false. Einstein makes explicit references to the
energies E_0 and H_0 the body has in the systems S(S0) and S'(S1)
respectively, at rest in system S(S0) and moving with velocity v in
system S'(S1), without any relation at all with the future light
energy emission. A little later Einstein writes H_0-E_0=K_0+C ,
equivalent to H_0=K_0+(E_0+C). The relevant phrase in the paper is
"Thus it is clear that the difference H-E can differ from the kinetic
energy K of the body, with respect to the other system S', only by an
additive constant C, which depends on the choice of the arbitrary
additive constants of the energies H and E. Thus we may place H_0-
E_0=K_0+C".
I had made the following question to you more that one time, and you
are always evading a rational answer. What kind of energy is for you
E_0 (that you said "it isn't potential"), an energy with an arbitrary
additive constant C, that when added to the kinetic energy K_0 you
obtain the total energy H_0? (I use here only the before emission case
with sub-index 0 to make you more clear that the presence of potential
energy can be supported without any reference to the light emission
event).
I propose you to check that potential energy is the unique kind of
energy in all Physics history until 1905 with an arbitrary additive
constant. As I said you before, to maintain that potential energy is
not present in Einstein's paper is absolutely impossible.

RVHG (Rafael Valls Hidalgo-Gato)

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