Re: Lorentz scalar and Lorentz invariant scalar are not the same thing?

On Jul 31, 7:27 am, PD <TheDraperFam...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Jul 30, 9:23 pm, "gu...@xxxxxxxxxxx" <gu...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:





On Jul 30, 2:24 pm, PD <TheDraperFam...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Jul 30, 12:37 pm, "gu...@xxxxxxxxxxx" <gu...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Jul 30, 12:50 pm, "Jeckyl" <no...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

<gu...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message

news:1185813270.920218.168100@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

Correct?

Look it up

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_scalar

Therefore it is correct that Lorentz scalar and Lorentz invariant
scalar are not the same thing?

That's correct, they are not the same thing. "Scalar" tells you how
many quantities are needed to describe it (1),

The web link above "specificaly says" a lorentz scalar is invariant,
meaning it cannot be the opposite of invariant.

and "invariant" tells
you how that quantity depends on the choice of reference frame.

An "apple" and a "green apple" are not the same thing.

PD- Hide quoted text -

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- Show quoted text -

There are difficulties with learning things from the web.

PD- Hide quoted text -

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It says that *ALL* lorentz scalars are invariant is this correct? If
so I cannot see any difference between a lorentz scalar and a lorentz
invariant scalar. Otherwise can you give an example of both used in
equations.



.

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