Re: The Real TWINS Paradox - the Simplest Version
- From: "Sue..." <suzysewnshow@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 25 Oct 2007 21:14:44 -0700
On Oct 19, 2:03 pm, Phil <toob-head...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Sue... wrote:
Well, this time I am mostly impressed! You still referred to "other
references," instead of reasoning it out for yourself, but I was fairly
harsh, and you responded with pure class ... the Sue I am used to seeing!
Thanks,
Phil
P.S. The universe does allow an experiment to "reveal" to us that
information about our "absolute velocity" which we could simply deduce
on our own, PRIOR to running the experiment. If we KNOW, prior to
running an experiment, that the experiment's velocity will include a
change of 0.6c relative to inertial observer C, as seen by inertial
observer C, then it would actually be amazing if the results of that
experiment were NOT consistent with a change of 0.6c, such as an elapsed
time of 0.8 relative to any inertial observer.
Similarly, simple geometry PROVES that if observer A goes on a round
trip with a constant velocity of 0.6c relative to inertial observer C
(the clock paradox), then A's AVERAGE absolute velocity is also at least
0.6c, meaning that A's clocks should show an elapsed time of 0.8
relative to C.
This is not *simple* geometry but rather space-time geometry.
It is far from simple and has many ambiguous interpretations.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gauge_fixing
"4-velocity and 4-acceleration "
http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/em/lectures/node115.html
However, we cannot deduce, prior to the experiment,
anything about C's absolute velocity of 0.6c, so unless the principle of
relativity is false, then as seen by C, A must ALWAYS end up with an
elapsed time of exactly 0.8, regardless of C's absolute velocity, and
that is in fact the case. Remember, relativity does not disprove
absolute velocity; the conclusion has been that absolute velocity should
be eliminated from physics because it is irrelevant, not because
relativity has somehow proven that absolute velocity doesn't exist.
Alen's exercise is an indication that this largely PHILOSOPHICAL
conclusion may not be completely justified, even though the exercise in
no way contradicts the LAWS of SR.
Can you rewrite that assuming a wave model?
Propagation in a dielectric medium
http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/em/lectures/node98.html
The particle model seems implied and there is no justification
for such a propagation model.
<<Now, does not the prize to Einstein imply
that the Academy recognised the particle
nature of light? The Nobel Committee says
that Einstein had found that the energy exchange
between matter and ether occurs by atoms emitting
or absorbing a quantum of energy,hv .
As a consequence of the new concept of light quanta
(in modern terminology photons) Einstein proposed the
law that an electron emitted from a substance by
monochromatic light with the frequency has to have
a maximum energy of E=hv-p, where p is the energy needed to
remove the electron from the substance. Robert Andrews
Millikan carried out a series of measurements over a
period of 10 years, finally confirming the validity of this
law in 1916 with great accuracy. Millikan had, however,
found the idea of light quanta to be unfamiliar and strange.
The Nobel Committee avoids committing itself to the
particle concept. Light-quanta or with modern terminology,
photons, were explicitly mentioned in the reports on
which the prize decision rested only in connection with
emission and absorption processes. The Committee says
that the most important application of Einstein's photoelectric
law and also its most convincing confirmation has come from
the use Bohr made of it in his theory of atoms, which explains
a vast amount of spectroscopic data. >>
http://nobelprize.org/physics/articles/ekspong/index.html
My (unpublished) paper is "The Need for Absolute References in a
Relativistic Universe," and its point is largely summed up in this
exercise; if it NECESSARILY FOLLOWS from OBSERVATIONS that some laws are
in fact functions of absolute velocity, then the fact that experimental
results are independent of initial absolute velocity does not mean that
we should declare that there are no "absolutes," no absolute laws, in
our universe. It's basically similar to dinosaurs; can we find any? No,
but their existence necessarily follows from things that CAN be directly
observed, and in true science, that should be enough. Similarly, even if
we can't measure our absolute velocity (without performing my "around
the universe experiment"), if it necessarily follows from observations
that some laws are in fact functions of absolute velocity, then by the
rules of true science, that should be enough. Okay, way too long for a P.S.!
The rotational speed of the earth is measured absolutlely,
for what it is worth.
"Always Knowing Precisely How Fast the Earth is Turning"
http://www.zeiss.com/C125716F004E0776/0/DB95426F0494AB1DC125717500445CEE/$File/Innovation_10_18.pdf
Sue...
http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/em/lectures/lectures.html
http://web.mit.edu/8.02t/www/802TEAL3D/visualizations/light/index.htm
http://www.ee.surrey.ac.uk/Personal/D.Jefferies/antennas.html
.
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